Showing posts with label deriving benefit. Show all posts
Showing posts with label deriving benefit. Show all posts

Thursday, January 15, 2009

Kodoshim Damaging

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Rabbi Abba(Bava Kamma 13) says: If shelamim damage, one collects from their meat (which is eaten) and not from their limbs (which is burnt on the mizbe’ach).

The Ketzos Hachoshen asks: Why, even according to Rabbi Yosi HaGelili, who holds that kodshim kalim are not the property of the High, should one be liable to pay for the damages? It is forbidden to derive pleasure from this animal, and something that is forbidden to derive benefit from is regarded as if it is ownerless!?

The Minchas Chinuch notes that this question is only according to the Rishonim, who maintain that something that is forbidden to derive benefit from is regarded as if it is ownerless. However, there are Rishonim who hold that one is considered the owner on things that are forbidden for benefit; it is just that it is not regarded as being under his domain. Accordingly, one would still be liable if his korban shelamim damaged.

Reb Shimon Shkop distinguishes between two types of items that are forbidden for pleasure. There are things that the Torah requires one to destroy. Such items are considered ownerless, and one cannot betroth a woman with those items. However, there are other items that are forbidden to derive benefit from because they are designated for a mitzvah, such as a sukkah during the holiday of Sukkos, tefillin and korbanos – these items are regarded as his. One would be allowed to sell them, for that does not retract from the mitzvah – it does not contradict that which it was designated for. One would be permitted to betroth a woman with a korban. This is why he would be liable if his shelamim damaged.

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Deriving Benefit from a Corpse

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By Reb Avi Lebovitz Hearos on the Daf

Tosfos (Bava Kamma 10) asks: Why do we need a special verse to exempt a person who is killed by falling in a pit? It should be included in the exposition of “and the corpse shall belong to him”!? This means that the owner of the pit is only liable when the corpse can belong to the owner of the animal. Just as we exclude an animal that is a disqualified sacrifice, which cannot belong entirely to its owner (since certain restrictions apply to it even after it is redeemed), we should exclude man as well, since it is forbidden to derive pleasure from a corpse!?

Tosfos answers that from this verse alone, I would have said that the owner of the pit is liable for damaging a gentile, since one is permitted to derive pleasure from his corpse, so we need a verse to exempt the pit owner for the death of all people.

Shulchan Aruch (Y.D. 349:1) writes that it is forbidden to derive benefit even from a gentile corpse. The Nekudas Hakesef quotes this from a Teshuvas Harashba. But, the Nikudas Hakesef points out that both our Tosfos and the Magid Mishnah hold that only a Jewish corpse is forbidden to derive pleasure from.

The Vilna Gaon proves that Tosfos is correct from David who used the foreskins from the Philistines to betroth the daughter of King Shaul. He also points out that the Rashba in his commentary on the Daf says like Tosfos.

However, the Pischei Teshuva reconciles Tosfos and the Rashba by saying that it is not Biblically forbidden, and that is why a special verse is needed to exempt the pit owner when a person is killed in a bor, but it is Rabbinically forbidden to derive pleasure from any corpse.

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Sunday, January 06, 2008

Ran Elucidated - Daf 16

Distinction between a vow and an oath - The Gemora cites the Scriptural source for this: How do we know that one cannot swear to transgress a mitzvah? It is because it is written [Bamidbar 30:3]: If a man makes a vow to Hashem or makes an oath to prohibit himself, he shall not desecrate his word; according to whatever came out of his mouth, he shall do. We see from here that only “his word” (a discretionary matter) he should not desecrate. However, he may desecrate it when it involves the wishes of Heaven (where his oath contradicts a mitzvah).

The Gemora asks: Why is a vow any different? If it is because it says makes a vow to Hashem, which implies that he should not desecrate his word even when his vow involves the wishes of Heaven, why, by an oath, it is also written makes an oath to Hashem (since the words “to Hashem” is written between a vow and an oath)?

Abaye answers: In the case of a vow, one says, “The pleasure of the sukkah should be forbidden upon me.” (Since the vow is upon the object, not the person, it is effective.) However, in the case of an oath, one says, “I swear that I will not derive any pleasure from the sukkah.” (Since the oath is upon the person and the mitzvah is upon the person, they are contradicting each other and the oath cannot take effect.)

The Ran explains: It is reasonable that the word “to Hashem” should be referring to a vow, but not an oath. It is logical to assume that a neder in this manner will take effect. This is because he is not vowing directly against the Torah’s commandment. The neder takes effect and he is prohibited from deriving benefit from the sukkah because we cannot force a person to eat something that is forbidden to him. However, by an oath, he is saying that he will not sit in the sukkah. This is a direct contradiction to the Torah’s commandment and he doesn’t have the power to free himself from the Torah’s commandment to sit in a sukkah.

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