The famous get delivered at Cleves

If He’s Healthy, He must Produce Evidence that he was Moribund

The famous get delivered at Cleves
Not many divorce cases have earned a special name or deserved to be assiduously detailed in halachic literature. One outstanding case, though, was that of Yitzchak Neierburg and Leah Guntzheusen of Germany, who were divorced very soon after their marriage about 200 years ago, on 8 Elul 5526. The couple wed in Mannheim but the bill of divorce was delivered in Cleves and has been since known as “the Cleve get.”

A divorce enacted at the Dutch border
Immediately after the wedding, the young husband became very introverted and sometimes murmured incomprehensible statements. One the Shabbos of the sheva berachos week, he took the dowry of 94 gold karolen and absconded to a neighboring village and, when discovered, explained that he had to desecrate the Shabbos and flee because “all his limbs trembled and a deathly fear had befallen him.” For some reason, the bride’s family did not yet demand a get. After the next Shabbos, Neierburg was in Bonn where he summoned his wife’s relative, Rabbi Shimon Copenhagen, and told him he was in great danger and had to leave the country immediately. There was no beis din in Bonn, so the wife’s family continued to Cleves, on the Dutch border, as Neierburg intended to flee to England via Holland. HaGaon Rav Yisrael Lifschitz, the rabbi of Cleves and the grandfather of the author of Tiferes Yisrael on the Mishnah, arranged the divorce once the husband insisted that he would be condemned to death unless he fled to England. The couple’s financial matters were then settled and Leah returned home.

The dispute that engulfed the halachic community
On hearing the news, Neierburg’s father became incensed, especially about the financial settlement which he deemed unfavorable to his son. He appealed to the rabbis of Mannheim and Frankfurt-am-Main to disqualify the get, claiming his son was insane and therefore halachically unable to divorce. The rabbis of Frankfurt and Mannheim soon issued a long and elaborately explained decision disqualifying the get and consequently defining Leah as still married. Her family appealed to other leading rabbinical authorities and the stormy discussion echoed throughout the halachic community to the point where every prominent expert voiced his opinion. The replies of some poskim were even publicized, including those of HaGaon Rav Yechezkel Landa, author of Noda’ BiYehudah; HaGaon Rav Aryeh Leib of Metz, the Shaagas Aryeh; HaGaon Rav David, av beis din of Dessau, known for his Korban Ha’Eidah; Rabbi Shlomo Chelma, famous for his Mirkeves HaMishneh on Rambam; Rabbi Elchanan Ashkenazi (Sidrei Tohorah); Rabbi Yitzchak HaLevi of Hamburg; HaGaon Rav Yaakov Emdin; and Rabbi Shaul of Amsterdam.

Why the Frankfurt community was hard put to hire a rav
So many rabbis expressed their opinions that several years later, when the Frankfurt congregation was seeking to appoint a new chief rabbi, the leaders of the community were only willing to consider one who did not disagree with his predecessors and they only found three candidates. The Frankfurt rabbis were the sole ones to still insist that Neierburg had been insane, whereas all the others allowed Leah to remarry. We shall now devote some study to the thought-provoking reply of the author of Shaagas Aryeh, publicized in Responsa Or HaYashar and at the end of his major work (Shaagas Aryeh, addition to #2).

In our sugya Rabbi Nassan states that one who had been moribund but recuperated may renege on the gifts that he distributed on his deathbed, as he was then sure that he was in his last moments and would have no further need for his property. What, though, is the halachah if we are unsure of the state of the person’s health when he distributed the gifts? The Gemora says that we must examine his condition right now. If he’s healthy now, we should assume he was so then but if he’s presently infirm, we assume he was the same then unless one of the sides proves otherwise.

Back to the get at Cleves, then, it had to be ascertained if Neierburg was sane or insane when he gave Leah her get, and, according to our sugya, we should consider his current condition. The Shaagas Aryeh wrote that he detained Neierburg at Metz for three days on his way to London and found him sane, and consequently, in his opinion, the get was valid. (The Shaagas Aryeh included many ideas, profound pilpul and halachic principles that we cannot fully explain here due both to lack of space and their profundity; we have touched on only one of his ideas, related to our sugya, without citing all his supportive proof leading to his final decision). Some record that Neierburg returned to Germany and remarried Leah but others deny the fact.

HALACHOS FROM THE DAF

Is He Alive?
In what type of scenarios do we remain with the assumption that a missing person is still alive? Which circumstance must occur before we assume that a missing person may have died?

The Shulchan Aruch (Even Ha’ezer 141:69) distinguishes between various settings. In cases where the city was;
a) surrounded by an army from the nearby government;
b) a ship floundering at sea;
c) a person that is on his way to be tried in a case where convicted carries the death penalty;
In all these cases, the person in question is considered to have remained alive.

Conversely, in cases where;
a) the city was captured;
b) surrounded by an invading army;
c) a ship that is lost at sea;
d) a convict that is on his way to be executed by non-Jews;
e) when a person was dragged away by a wild animal;
f) a river swept him away;
g) a house collapsed on him;
In all these instances, we cannot safely assume that he assuredly remained alive; therefore we give him the status of both a living and dead person.

This would have strict implications:
a) His wife cannot remarry - for he might be alive.
b) Even if a get was given to an agent to give to his wife, he may not do so - for he might be dead (since one cannot divorce his wife after he is dead). If the agent did give her the get, she would have the status as a safek migureshes.
c) If the missing person is a Kohen, his wife cannot eat terumah - for he might be dead.
d) If the missing person is a Yisroel, but his wife is a daughter of a Kohen, she cannot eat terumah - for he might be alive.

Read more!

Divorce in the Back of His Mind

The Gemora relates a story about a man that was told that his wife can't smell. Rashbam quotes a Gemora in Kesuvos regarding a man that was mekadesh a woman on the assumption that she has no mum (blemishes, or deficiencies) and finds out once they are married that she does, he can claim that it is a mekach ta’us (a mistaken purchase) and she leaves the marriage without a kesuvah. This only applies to a mum that is hidden (i.e. it was not noticeable before they got engaged), for example, she can’t smell. The Gemora continues: The man decides to test her. He takes her into a secluded place and hidden in his pocket is a radish. He remarks to her that he smells radishes from nearby Galilee. The point of this was to test her response, and from that he’ll be able to discern if she could really smell or not. His wife immediately understood what this whole charade was about, and jokingly replied that she can smell the dates (which in those days was eaten together with radishes). The man realized that she can smell after all, and was about to apologize, but calamity struck and the room that they were in collapsed on her, and she died.

The question is: Can the husband inherit his wife’s property? The Gemora rules that “since he only went into the secluded place to test her, he may not inherit her property.” The Rashbam explains that since the husband tested her to see if she can smell, and although she was able to, in the back of the husband’s mind, he was about to divorce her if she had a mum. Therefore the status of imminent divorce stays, until he clearly has no intention of divorcing her. The Rashbam logically applies this to any case where the husband had an argument with his wife and has in mind to divorce her, if she dies when he is still in that mindset, then he cannot inherit her. He brings proof from a Gemora in Gittin which states that once a husband intends to divorce his wife, as long as he still has that mindset, he cannot continue to eat her fruits (a husband has a right to eat the fruits of his wife’s field or property).

Tosfos explains that the Gemora is talking about a man that was not married to the woman, rather he was engaged. Understandably, the Rashbam’s premise that a husband loses his right to inherit his wife if she died while he had in mind to divorce her, has no basis from this Gemora. Tosfos also disproves the Rashbam’s proof from the Gemora in Gittin.

The Rema (Even Ha’ezer Siman 90 Seif 5) rules that as long as a man did not actually divorce his wife, even if he intended to do so, he inherits her property. This is the opinion of Tosfos.

There is a rule in the halachos of mourning that we go after the lenient opinion. Therefore although we don’t follow the opinion of the Rashbam in regards to inheritance, there are Poskim (Chochmas Shlomo cites Yam Shel Shlomo, Pischei Tshuva cites a Yeshous Yaakov that records that this was the Maharal’s view), that maintain in the above scenario, where the husband had in mind to divorce his wife, he is not considered a mourner.

Read more!

Forced Get

Rav Huna holds that if one is coerced to sell property, the sale is never the less binding. [The reason for this is that a person will feel that he has no choice, and he might as well give up the property and take the money.] The Gemora says that all sales are done under duress and nevertheless, they are binding. [People only sell when they need money but they really have no desire to sell.

The Gemora asks on this logic. There might be a difference when the coercion is not internal, but coming from someone else.

Perhaps it is from the following braisa: It is written regarding a sacrifice: He shall bring it. This teaches us that we force him to fulfill his obligation. Perhaps, you might think that he brings the korban even against his will. The Torah writes: Of his will. This teaches us that we compel him to bring the sacrifice until he says that he is willing to bring it. [This shows that one can be forced by others to do something willingly, and is therefore a source for the law that a forced sale is a sale.]

The Gemora rejects this proof: Perhaps there it is different, for everyone wishes to receive atonement (and he is really willing to bring the korban).

Rather, it may be proven from the latter part of that braisa, which states: And the same is true regarding a letter of divorce and the emancipation of slaves. We compel him to give the get (in cases where he is required to do so) until he says that he is willing to give it. Evidently, the divorce and emancipation is valid even though, in his heart, he is not truly willing. This proves that words that are only in the heart are not regarded as words.

The Gemora rejects this proof: Perhaps there it is different, for he has a mitzvah to listen to the Chachamim (to issue a divorce or to free his slave).

Similarly, the Rambam discusses a case when a person is obligated to divorce his wife due to the ruling of Beis Din. When he refuses, he is beaten until he says that he is willing.

The Rambam asks: How can a get that is given by force be ruled to be valid? A coerced get is not valid at all!?

He explains that it is only considered “forced,” if a Jew is compelled to do something that the Torah does not obligate him to do. However, if he is compelled to do something that the Torah instructs him to do, this is not considered “forced.” The explanation is as follows: A Jew wants to perform all the mitzvos and distance himself from all sins, but his evil inclination convinces him to do otherwise. When he is beaten, his evil inclination is broken and when he says that he is willing, it is his actual intent and the get is valid.

Read more!

Concern for an Unfulfilled Condition

Subscribe to the Daily Daf Yomi Summary here

The braisa (Kiddushin 60) had stated: If someone says, “This is your get on condition that you give me two hundred zuz,” even if the get is torn or lost, she is divorced. She should not marry someone else until she gives him the money.

Rashi explains that we are concerned that she will remarry, and if she doesn’t give the money, it will emerge that she was never divorced, and her second marriage would be an adulterous one!

The Ran writes that we can derive from this halachah to any case where a man divorces his wife with a condition; she may not remarry before the condition is met, for otherwise, her second marriage would be an adulterous one!

The Ran challenges this principle from a Gemora in Gittin (83a): Rabbi Akiva said: What happens if after this Get (if one divorces his wife and stipulates that she can marry anyone except for one certain man), she marries a man and has children from him, and then subsequently he divorces her or dies? If she now goes and marries the man that her first husband forbade her to marry, this would make her first Get invalid and the children from her second marriage are rendered mamzeirim! The Gemora asks: According to this question all conditions made in gittin should not be valid, as she could always marry someone first, have children, and then not fulfill the condition! This is the question on Rabbi Akiva’s question.

It would seem from this Gemora that we are not concerned by an ordinary condition that it will not end up being fulfilled!?

The Ran differentiates between conditions that require an action, and those that don’t. In our case, the woman must give the two hundred zuz to the man. Here we are concerned that due to an accident, she will not give him the money. However, in the case in Gittin, we are not concerned that she will willingly violate the condition.

Read more!

Forced Divorce

Subscribe to the Daily Daf Yomi Summary here

The Gemora (Kiddushin 50) asks: How does Rava know that “words that are only in the heart are not regarded as words”?

Perhaps it is from the following braisa: It is written regarding a sacrifice: He shall bring it. This teaches us that we force him to fulfill his obligation. Perhaps, you might think that he brings the korban even against his will. The Torah writes: Of his will. This teaches us that we compel him to bring the sacrifice until he says that he is willing to bring it. Evidently, the sacrifice is valid even though, in his heart, he does not want to bring it. This proves that words that are only in the heart are not regarded as words.

The Gemora rejects this proof: Perhaps there it is different, for everyone wishes to receive atonement (and he is really willing to bring the korban).

Rather, it may be proven from the latter part of that braisa, which states: And the same is true regarding a letter of divorce and the emancipation of slaves. We compel him to give the get (in cases where he is required to do so) until he says that he is willing to give it. Evidently, the divorce and emancipation is valid even though, in his heart, he is not truly willing. This proves that words that are only in the heart are not regarded as words.

The Gemora rejects this proof: Perhaps there it is different, for he has a mitzvah to listen to the Chachamim (to issue a divorce or to free his slave).

Similarly, the Rambam discusses a case when a person is obligated to divorce his wife due to the ruling of Beis Din. When he refuses, he is beaten until he says that he is willing.

The Rambam asks: How can a get that is given by force be ruled to be valid? A coerced get is not valid at all!?

He explains that it is only considered “forced,” if a Jew is compelled to do something that the Torah does not obligate him to do. However, if he is compelled to do something that the Torah instructs him to do, this is not considered “forced.” The explanation is as follows: A Jew wants to perform all the mitzvos and distance himself from all sins, but his evil inclination convinces him to do otherwise. When he is beaten, his evil inclination is broken and when he says that he is willing, it is his actual intent and the get is valid.

Read more!

Compliance with the Rabbis - Gittin 73

Rabbah and Rava did not agree with Rav Huna (and they hold that if a deathly ill person gives a get and recovers, it is a valid get), as they were afraid it might lead people to think that a get could be given after death.

The Gemora asks: Since the get is void in accordance with Biblical law, how can we allow a married woman, owing to the authority of Beis Din, to marry anyone in the world?

The Gemora answers: Yes! Anyone who betroths a woman does so in implicit compliance with the ordinances of the Rabbis, and the Rabbis have in this case retroactively revoked the original betrothal. (They accomplished this by transforming retroactively the money of the betrothal given to the woman at her first marriage into an ordinary gift. Since the hefker of money comes within the authority of Beis Din, they are thus fully empowered to cancel the original betrothal, and the divorcee assumes, in consequence, the status of an unmarried woman who is permitted to marry any stranger.)

Ravina said to Rav Ashi: This is a satisfactory explanation where betrothal was effected by means of money; what, however, can be said in a case where betrothal was effected by cohabitation?

Rav Ashi replied: The Rabbis have assigned to such cohabitation the character of a promiscuous cohabitation. (From the moment a divorce is annulled in such a manner, the cohabitation, it was ordained, must assume retroactively the character of a promiscuous cohabitation, and since her original betrothal is thus invalidated, the woman resumes the status of the unmarried and is free to marry whomsoever she desires.)

The Rashba asks: Why don’t we apply this rule in the case in Yevamos where a man fell into water that has no end? There, we rule that the wife will remain an agunah because the husband might have exited the water from a place that was not visible to us. Why don’t we say that the Chachamim revoked the original kiddushin from him, and she may remarry another man?

He answers: It is only applicable in certain cases. If, for example, there was a get, except that it was written with a condition, and an uncertainty arose regarding the condition, the Chachamim can revoke his kiddushin. Another example where the Chachamim would revoke the kiddushin is where one witness is testifying on the woman’s behalf (that her husband died). However, when there is no get and no witness, the Chachamim did not go ahead and revoke a kiddushin.

The Gemora in Yevamos (110a) records an incident in Narsh where a girl was married off when she was a minor. When she became an adult, they sat her by a Chupah (wedding canopy, in order to validate the first marriage), and someone else snatched her away before the “wedding” (and made her his wife)! Rav Bruna and Rav Chananel, students of Rav, were present when this happened, and they did not even require her to have a get from the second “husband” (as his kiddushin is invalid).

Rav Ashi explains that being that the wife snatcher acted improperly, the Chachamim therefore acted improperly with him and removed the validity of his kiddushin. (This is following the opinion of Rav, who maintains that for the marriage of a minor to become valid, she must have marital relations with her husband when she becomes an adult, and if not the marriage is invalid.)

The Chachamim were empowered to remove the kiddushin in this case because he acted improperly in the beginning of the kiddushin.

Reb Yosef Engel in Gilyonei Hashas cites a Teshuvos haRashba who writes that we only apply the principle of “Since he acted improperly, the Chachamim acted improperly with him” in places that are specifically mentioned in Chazal. The Sages did not annul the marriage in every case where one acts with trickery. This can be proven from a Gemora in Kiddushin (58b). The Gemora states: One who instructs his fellow to marry a woman for him (as an agent), and the agent goes ahead and marries her for himself, she is married to the second one. We do not say that since he acted improperly, the Chachamim invalidated his marriage.

This can also be proven from the fact that even if one betroths a woman who is subject to a negative prohibition, kiddushin, nevertheless takes effect. This is also true if someone marries a woman who is a secondary ervah to him. Obviously, sometimes this principle is applied, and sometimes, it isn’t.

The Chasam Sofer asks: Why, in these cases (where he betroths a woman subject to a negative prohibition, or a secondary ervah) do we not say that the Chachamim revoked his kiddushin?

He answers, based upon Tosfos, who says that it is for this reason that the groom tells the bride that he is betrothing her according to the laws of Moshe and all of Israel. The kiddushin is only effective if Israel, i.e. the Chachamim consent to the marriage. However, one who is violating the Torah, or the sages, is obviously not marrying with such a stipulation and therefore, the marriage can still be effective. [According to the Chasam Sofer, not every marriage has that stipulation attached to it.]

The Shiltei Giborim states that this principle applies by a get as well. Anyone who divorces a woman does so in implicit compliance with the ordinances of the Rabbis, and the Rabbis may, in certain cases retroactively revoke the divorce.

Based upon this, the Taamei Yaakov answers the following famous question on Rabbeinu Gershom’s decree: Since the Torah expressly permits one to divorce his wife without her consent, how can this be banned? The Taz lais down a rule that the Rabbis do not have the authority to prohibit something which is explicitly permitted by the Torah!?

He answers that since the Rabbis forbid giving a get in such a manner, it is automatically nullified, for one’s betrothal and divorce can only be effective if he is compliance with the Rabbis’ ordinances. In these cases, the Rabbis did not consent to such a get.

[I am uncertain as to how this answers the question. Granted, the get will be ineffective since it is prohibited to give a get without the woman’s consent; but how did the Rabbis have the authority to issue such a decree? If the Torah expressly permits it, they cannot forbid it!?]

Path to Sanctity

The Gemora states: Whoever betroths a woman in Jewish marriage, betroths her subject to the will of the Rabbis.

The baalei mussar say: One who wants to sanctify and purify himself in his service to his Creator, should do so subject to the will of the Rabbis. He should go to the Rabbis and the righteous people of his generation, and they shall guide him in his quest. One who tries to forge a path himself is apt to stumble and make mistakes; nothing substantive will result from it.

Read more!

Directly from Hashem

The Gemora (Gittin 72) cited a braisa: If a scribe wrote a get for the sake of a specific woman, and the witnesses signed it for her sake as well, although they wrote, signed and gave it to the husband, and the husband gave the get to his wife, it is not valid until the scribe and the witnesses hear the husband’s voice telling them to write and sign it.

It is evident from here that if one person tells another to tell another, it is not regarded as if the third person heard it from the first.

Reb Yosef Engel asks from a Gemora in Kiddushin (22b), which states: Why is the ear different than all the other limbs in the body (that it is chosen for piercing for a slave that chooses to stay by his master)? The Holy One, Blessed be He said, “The ear that heard My voice on Mount Sinai when I said, ‘Bnei Yisroel are slaves to Me, and not slaves to other slaves,’ and this person went and acquired another master for himself, his ear should be pierced!” Why is it regarded as if he heard these words from Hashem? Bnei Yisroel only heard the first two commandments from Him; the rest were said over by Moshe!? We could have answered that since Moshe heard it directly from Hashem, and Bnei Yisroel heard it from Moshe, it is regarded as if they heard it directly from Hashem. However, based on our Gemora, that is incorrect!?

He answers that since when Moshe spoke, the Shechinah was talking through Moshe’s throat, it was considered as if they heard the commandments directly from Hashem.

Read more!

Husband's Knowledge

The Mishna (Daf Yomi: Gittin 45b - 46a)had stated: Rabbi Meir says: If it is a vow which requires examination by a Chacham (and the husband cannot annul it by himself), he may not take her back, but for one which does not require examination by a Chacham (the husband can annul it himself), he may take her back (because in this case, the husband cannot advance the claim that the divorce was due to a misunderstanding). Rabbi Elozar said: They prohibited him to remarry in the case where the vow required examination by a Chacham to annul it only on account of the case where the vow did not require examination by a Chacham to annul it (since in the latter case, the husband might claim that he was not aware that he had the right to disallow the vow; in the former case, however, no such claim can be advanced because no man would consent that his wife should be exposed to a court of law).

The Gemora asks: What is the core of their argument? Rabbi Meir maintains that a husband does not mind his wife’s being exposed to a court of law and therefore forbids remarriage on account of the first reason mentioned above, since the first husband might claim that if he had known that the vow could be disallowed by a Chacham, he would not have consented to give a divorce. Rabbi Elozar holds that no man would consent that his wife should be exposed to a court of law.

The Tosfos Rid explains the argument in the following manner. If the vow required a Chacham to permit it, he may not remarry her. This is because we are scared that he will say that if I merely knew that a Chacham could permit it, I would never have divorced her. He would have had her go before a Beis Din to have her vow permitted, despite the fact that this is embarrassing. However, if it is a vow that he could have nullified as her husband, there is no suspicion. This is because everyone knows that they can nullify certain vows that their wives make. The fact that he did not do so shows that he clearly wanted to divorce her; regardless of whether or not the vow was actually made. Rabbi Elozar holds that a husband does not always realize that he can nullify his wife’s vows. Therefore, they cannot remarry if he divorced her because of such a vow, as he will later claim that if he had known he could have done so, he would not have divorced her. Furthermore, Rabbi Elozar says that a vow that requires a Chacham or Beis Din is not really cause for them not to remarry. This is because he would not have taken his wife to a Chacham or beis din anyway, because it is denigrating. However, in this case as well they are forbidden to remarry because of the similarity to the case where a Chacham is not required.

Read more!

Compliance with the Rabbis

The Gemora (Daf Yomi: Gittin 33a) asks: Since the get may be annulled in accordance with Biblical law, how can we allow a married woman, owing to the authority of Beis Din, to marry anyone in the world?

The Gemora answers: Yes! Anyone who betroths a woman does so in implicit compliance with the ordinances of the Rabbis, and the Rabbis have in this case retroactively revoked the original betrothal. (They accomplished this by transforming retroactively the money of the betrothal given to the woman at her first marriage into an ordinary gift. Since the hefker of money comes within the authority of Beis Din, they are thus fully empowered to cancel the original betrothal, and the divorcee assumes, in consequence, the status of an unmarried woman who is permitted to marry any stranger.)

Ravina said to Rav Ashi: This is a satisfactory explanation where betrothal was effected by means of money; what, however, can be said in a case where betrothal was effected by cohabitation?

Rav Ashi replied: The Rabbis have assigned to such cohabitation the character of a promiscuous cohabitation. (From the moment a divorce is annulled in such a manner, the cohabitation, it was ordained, must assume retroactively the character of a promiscuous cohabitation, and since her original betrothal is thus invalidated, the woman resumes the status of the unmarried and is free to marry whomsoever she desires.)

The Rashba asks: Why don’t we apply this rule in the case in Yevamos where a man fell into water that has no end? There, we rule that the wife will remain an agunah because the husband might have exited the water from a place that was not visible to us. Why don’t we say that the Chachamim revoked the original kiddushin from him, and she may remarry another man?

He answers: It is only applicable in certain cases. If, for example, there was a get, except that it was written with a condition, and an uncertainty arose regarding the condition, the Chachamim can revoke his kiddushin. Another example where the Chachamim would revoke the kiddushin is where one witness is testifying on the woman’s behalf (that her husband died). However, when there is no get and no witness, the Chachamim did not go ahead and revoke a kiddushin.

The Gemora in Yevamos (110a) records an incident in Narsh where a girl was married off when she was a minor. When she became an adult, they sat her by a Chupah (wedding canopy, in order to validate the first marriage), and someone else snatched her away before the “wedding” (and made her his wife)! Rav Bruna and Rav Chananel, students of Rav, were present when this happened, and they did not even require her to have a get from the second “husband” (as his kiddushin is invalid).

Rav Ashi explains that being that the wife snatcher acted improperly, the Chachamim therefore acted improperly with him and removed the validity of his kiddushin. (This is following the opinion of Rav, who maintains that for the marriage of a minor to become valid, she must have marital relations with her husband when she becomes an adult, and if not the marriage is invalid.)

The Chachamim were empowered to remove the kiddushin in this case because he acted improperly in the beginning of the kiddushin.

Reb Yosef Engel in Gilyonei Hashas cites a Teshuvos haRashba who writes that we only apply the principle of “Since he acted improperly, the Chachamim acted improperly with him” in places that are specifically mentioned in Chazal. The Sages did not annul the marriage in every case where one acts with trickery. This can be proven from a Gemora in Kiddushin (58b). The Gemora states: One who instructs his fellow to marry a woman for him (as an agent), and the agent goes ahead and marries her for himself, she is married to the second one. We do not say that since he acted improperly, the Chachamim invalidated his marriage.

This can also be proven from the fact that even if one betroths a woman who is subject to a negative prohibition, kiddushin, nevertheless takes effect. This is also true if someone marries a woman who is a secondary ervah to him. Obviously, sometimes this principle is applied, and sometimes, it isn’t.

The Chasam Sofer asks: Why, in these cases (where he betroths a woman subject to a negative prohibition, or a secondary ervah) do we not say that the Chachamim revoked his kiddushin?

He answers, based upon Tosfos, who says that it is for this reason that the groom tells the bride that he is betrothing her according to the laws of Moshe and all of Israel. The kiddushin is only effective if Israel, i.e. the Chachamim consent to the marriage. However, one who is violating the Torah, or the sages, is obviously not marrying with such a stipulation and therefore, the marriage can still be effective. [According to the Chasam Sofer, not every marriage has that stipulation attached to it.]

The Shiltei Giborim states that this principle applies by a get as well. Anyone who divorces a woman does so in implicit compliance with the ordinances of the Rabbis, and the Rabbis may, in certain cases retroactively revoke the divorce.

Based upon this, the Taamei Yaakov answers the following famous question on Rabbeinu Gershom’s decree: Since the Torah expressly permits one to divorce his wife without her consent, how can this be banned? The Taz lais down a rule that the Rabbis do not have the authority to prohibit something which is explicitly permitted by the Torah!?

He answers that since the Rabbis forbid giving a get in such a manner, it is automatically nullified, for one’s betrothal and divorce can only be effective if he is compliance with the Rabbis’ ordinances. In these cases, the Rabbis did not consent to such a get.

[I am uncertain as to how this answers the question. Granted, the get will be ineffective since it is prohibited to give a get without the woman’s consent; but how did the Rabbis have the authority to issue such a decree? If the Torah expressly permits it, they cannot forbid it!?]

Read more!

Ben Azzai

Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef said in the name of Rabbi Yochanan (Daf Yomi: Sotah 4b): All of these Tannaim figured out the length of a seclusion based upon their own experience (how long it took each of them to perform the initial act of cohabitation with their own wife).

The Gemora asks: But Ben Azzai never got married (based upon the Gemora in Yevamos 63b, where Ben Azzai explained why he did not marry: “What should I do? My soul desires the Torah. The world can survive through other people.”)?

The Gemora answers: You could say that he got married and later divorced.

Alternatively, you can say that he heard this opinion from his teacher.

And if you prefer, you can say that “The secrets of Hashem are revealed to those that fear him.”

Rabbeinu Avraham min Ha’har explains that due to Ben Azzai’s tremendous desire to study Torah, he did not experience any unclean thoughts, and was therefore not obligated to get married.

Reb Elchanan Wasserman states that Ben Azzai was exempt from the mitzvah of marrying, for he was unable to cease studying Torah even for one moment.

Reb Yosef Engel writes that Ben Azzai discharged his obligation of procreation through his new insights in Torah. This is based upon the Gemora in Brochos (47b), which states that two torah scholars studying together can be regarded as three with respect to the laws of Birchas Hamazon (they could make a mezumen, even though the halacha is that three people are needed). The Rosh explains that the Torah that they are studying is regarded as the third person.

Read more!

Pre-existing Conditions

The Gemora (Nedarim 72a) stated that the Mishna is referring to a nesuah, and the reason that the husband cannot revoke her vow is because the halacha is that a husband cannot revoke his nesuah’s prior vows.

The Ra”n explains that it can be referring to a nesuah either in the marriage preceding the divorce or the one that followed it. If she was an arusah by the first marriage and a nesuah at the end, he would not be able to revoke her nedarim, for the husband cannot revoke pre-existing nedarim. If she was a nesuah by the first marriage and an arusah at the end, he cannot revoke her nedarim, for once she is a nesuah, the father loses his rights over her, and the arus is not able to revoke her vows without the conjunction of her father.

The Reshash notes that it would seem from this Ra”n that a husband after nisuin can indeed revoke the nedarim that his wife made while she was an arusah. For otherwise, the Mishna did not have to mention that he divorced her and then remarried her. He cites the Rambam’s opinion that the husband may not revoke the nedarim that his wife made while she was an arusah.

There are those that explain the argument as follows: Does the husband have authority over his wife’s nedarim, while she is an arusah? If you say that the husband has no authority then; it is only in conjunction with her father that he may revoke her nedarim, we can explain the Rambam’s opinion. Once they perform nisuin, the husband acquires the authority to revoke her nedarim, but he can only use this authority on nedarim that his wife makes from now on. However, if you will say that the husband does have authority to revoke her vows even during the erusin, except that this authority is limited in the fact that he may only revoke her nedarim in conjunction with her father, we can understand the Ra”n’s opinion. The husband may revoke the nedarim that his wife made during erusin, for this is not regarded as a pre-existing neder, since he had the authority to revoke this neder even beforehand.

Read more!

Divorcing a Woman Against her Will

The Gemora (Kesuvos 109a) cites a case where the father-in-law stipulated to give money to his son-in-law, and he stretched out his leg to him (an expression meaning that he doesn’t intend to fulfill his commitment), he may divorce her against her will.

The commentators discuss the halacha nowadays, where there exists the ban from Rabbeinu Gershom against divorcing a woman against her will (there is an extensive discussion among the poskim if this applies to an arusah as well). Is the husband permitted to forcefully accept the bill of divorce or not?

It is brought in the name of the Rashba that Rabbeinu Gershom did not issue his decree in cases where the husband was not negligent; the edict was only established for unethical husbands who wish to take advantage of their wives, and therefore, in this case, the husband may forcibly divorce her. Or, perhaps, even in this case, he should not divorce her against her will, for the wife did nothing wrong.

The Mishna Lamelech cites an incident that occurred with the Mishpitei Shmuel in the town of Kushtantina. The groom betrothed a woman and promised that he will perform the nisuin on a certain day. On the appointed day, the groom asked for her dowry, but his father-in-law refused, claiming that he lacked the necessary funds. The ruling was that the groom is not obligated to perform the nisuin, for he has a legitimate claim that his promise to marry her was only based upon his receiving the dowry from his father-in-law.

The Pnei Moshe derived from this ruling that in our case, the husband may forcibly divorce his arusah, for Rabbeinu Gershom’s decree would not be applicable in that case.

The Mishna Lamelech states that there is no proof from that ruling. The ruling there was only that the groom is not obligated to fulfill his promise to her and perform the nisuin, but they did not rule that he may forcibly divorce her.

Read more!

Causing the Loss to Who?

Rav Kahana and Rav Assi asked Rav (Kesuvos 89b): According to you, who maintains that if the woman produces her get, she would collect the primary amount for her kesuvah (even without producing her kesuvah), with what evidence, may a woman, widowed from nisuin, offer in order to collect her kesuvah? The answer is obvious: She brings witnesses that her husband died! However, the question may be raised, let us be concerned that she was previously divorced, and later, she will produce the get and collect the primary amount of her kesuvah with it (since Rav is of the opinion that we do not write a receipt for the inheritors)?

Rav answers: She may collect her kesuvah only if we know that she was living with her husband until he died (and there was no divorce).

They asked: But perhaps, he divorced her right before he died?

Rav replied: If that was the case, he has caused the loss upon himself.

Reb Elchonon Wasserman in Koveitz Shiurim (319) asks: Why would the inheritors be obligated to give her the kesuvah in this case; the father is not causing the loss to himself; he is causing a loss to his heirs, who will now be responsible to pay her for the kesuvah?

Read more!

A Childless Couple Divorcing and Remarrying

A couple who did not merit having children came to Rav Yitzchak Zilberstein with the following inquiry: Should they get divorced and then remarried, for they had heard that this is a segulah for having children? The woman, however, was refusing because getting divorced was degrading to her. What should they do?

He cited proof from our Gemora that a divorce, even just for a few moments is degrading and therefore, the wife has grounds to refuse the divorce.

The Gemora (Kesuvos 81b) states: Rava sent the following question to Abaye in the hands of Rav Shemayah bar Zeira: Is it indeed true that the kesuvah of a yevamah was meant to be collected while the yavam is alive? But didn’t we learn in the following braisa: Rabbi Abba said: I asked Sumchus: If a yavam (after performing yibum) wishes to sell some of his brother’s properties (something that he is not allowed to do), what should he do?

Sumchus responded: If he is a Kohen (and he cannot marry his divorcee), he should prepare for her a feast (with some wine) and persuade her to allow him to sell the property (which exceeds the amount of her kesuvah). If he is a Yisroel, he should divorce her and then, remarry her (he can either sell the properties before the second marriage or afterwards).

Rava concludes his question: If the kesuvah of a yevamah was meant to be collected while the yavam is alive, let the yavam designate land for her which equals the amount of the kesuvah, and then, he should be permitted to sell the remaining property? This, explains Rashi is a much more preferable option, for getting divorced is degrading!

The Steipler Gaon, when asked the same question, said that a childless couple may try to divorce and remarry (and the husband need not be concerned that after the divorce, the wife will refuse to remarry); however, he personally never heard that this is a valid segulah and he has no opinion regarding its veracity.

Read more!

BLACKMAILING FATHER TESTIFIES THAT HE MARRIED OFF HIS MINOR DAUGHTER

The Gemora (Kesuvos 17b – 18a) states: If two witnesses said that they were coerced to testify falsely on account of a threat to their finances, they are not believed.

The Gemora asks: What is the reason for this?

The Gemora answers: It is because that a person is not believed to establish himself as an evil person. (Rashi explains that every witness is assumed to be reliable; by issuing a self-incriminating statement, he will be disqualifying himself from further testimony. Just as a person cannot testify regarding his relative, he may not testify about himself because he is related to himself.)

The following question was raised to the poskim years ago: A man testified in Beis Din that he married off his minor daughter, but he refused to state the identity of this man. His intention was to put pressure on his wife for her to accept a divorce without receiving any alimony payments and to have equal visitation rights for the children. Do we accept his testimony and consider the girl as a married woman?

Rav Eliyahu Pesach Ramnik, Rosh Yeshiva of Ohavei torah in Far Rockaway applied the principle of ‘a person is not believed to establish himself as an evil person’ as the basis for his ruling. He explained: The father, who is testifying that he married off his minor daughter is establishing himself as a wicked person for several different reasons. Firstly, if in truth, he has married her off in order to extort money from his wife, using a mechanism of the Torah in this manner causes a tremendous desecration of Hashem’s name, and if the wife does not concede to his demands, the child will remain an agunah her entire life. This will result in an even bigger chilul Hashem. Secondly, he is transgressing the prohibition of paining another fellow Jew. The pain and the embarrassment that he is causing his wife and daughter to endure is indescribable. Thirdly, the Gemora in Sanhedrin (76a) states that one who marries his daughter to an elderly man transgresses a Biblical prohibition of causing his daughter to sin, since she will not be satisfied in that marriage; certainly in this case, the father will be violating this prohibition, for the daughter does not even know the identity of her true husband. Based on these above reasons, it emerges that by accepting the father’s testimony, he would be rendered a rasha, and therefore, his testimony should not be accepted and his daughter would not be regarded as a married woman.

Rav Yitzchak Zilberstein, in his sefer Chashukei Chemed questions the above conclusion. He cites several Acharonim who rule that when a man has already been established as a rasha regarding other matters, his testimony can still be valid (provided that he is not disqualified from offering testimony) even though it also renders him a rasha. The Chacham Tzvi (responsa 3) rules that if someone has violated a light transgression in our presence, he would still be believed that he has violated an even stricter prohibition. This is because his testimony is not rendering him a rasha, he already has established himself a rahsa. It is for this reason that we will be compelled to accept the father’s testimony that he married off his daughter, for this man has already been established as a rasha. He is desecrating the name of Hashem by using the Torah’s mechanisms for evil purposes and by causing pain and grief to his wife and to his daughter.

Read more!

SHARDS AND PEARLS

Rav Yehudah said in the name of Rav: Rabbi Elozar could have expounded from this verse a pearl, but instead, he expounded from it only a shard (it is obvious that a letter of divorce received from a man to whom the woman is not married to is pointless, and it would not render her ineligible to marry a Kohen).

(The Mishna had stated: If they said to her, “Your husband died,” and she became betrothed to another man, and afterwards her husband came back, she is permitted to return to him. Even though the latter one gave her a bill of divorce, he did not disqualify her from the Kehunah. This was expounded by Rabbi Elozar ben Masya: It is written [Vayikra 21:7]: And nor shall the Kohanim take in marriage a woman divorced from her husband. This teaches us that a woman who is divorced from her legal husband is forbidden to be married to a Kohen, but a woman divorced from a man who is not her husband will not disqualify her.

What is the pearl that he could have expounded? He could have expounded that which we learned in the following braisa: It is written [Vayikra 21:7]: Nor shall the Kohanim take a woman divorced from her husband. This teaches us that even if she was divorced from her husband alone (if the husband inserted in the letter of divorce a clause forbidding her to marry anyone else), she becomes disqualified from marrying a Kohen. And this is what is meant when it is stated: The scent of the divorce can disqualify a woman from marrying a Kohen.)

How could Rav refer to Rabbi Elozar’s exposition of the verse as a shard? His exposition is also halachically correct. Just because it is not as novel of a ruling, is that grounds to degrade it? Furthermore, the Gemora states elsewhere that one should not say that this teaching he likes, and this one he does not; one who does say that is discarding the glory of the Torah.

Ohel Moshe explains that Rav meant to say like the Gemora Bava Metzia (17b) states: If I had not lifted the shard for you, you would not have found the pearl underneath. Rav was saying that Rabbi Elozar could have expounded the second exposition, which is a deeper one and more novel of a ruling, but Rabbi Elozar was compelled to initially “lift the shard,” by expounding the verse according to its simple interpretation, and only afterwards could we “find the pearl,” and expound the verse with a more novel ruling.

Read more!